Paul Osborne wrote:
Horse pucky. Christ fulfilled the Law... all of it. The ancient Isrealites had a lot of other nondoctrinal cultural practices that weren't restored, so that argument is really lame and easily punctured.
C'mon, Paul. You can do better than that.
Christ fulfilled the Law of Moses – the various rites, ordinances, and rituals that pertain to sacrifice.
You know as well as I do that blessed plural marriage was before the law of Moses. There are no teachings in the scriptures that say Christ fulfilled (done away) the law of marriage as practiced by the ancients, notably, Abraham.
Did I do better that time?
Wait a minute....rituals pertaining to sacrifice were part of the Abrahamic covenant. God commanded Abraham to sacrifice his son, Issac. He stopped him before the sacrifice was complete, stating that the exercise was an object lesson symbolizing the sacrifice of Christ.
Why would Christ's crucifixion and resurrection only fulfill a portion
of Abraham's law?
This is where I have always found a HUGE disconnect. Take a look at the following scriptures, Paul:
3 Nephi 15:9
9 Behold, I am the (a)law, and the light. Look unto me, and endure to the end, and ye shall live; for unto him that endureth to the end will I give eternal life.
Take a look at the cross-reference for law:
2 Nephi 26:1
And after Christ shall have risen from the dead he shall show himself unto you, my children, and my beloved brethren; and the words which he shall speak unto you shall be the law which ye shall do.
Why the blatant disconnect? This, coupled with the graphic details of how the hearts of God's daughters were broken by polygamy in Jacob 2 leads me to believe that there has been some gross misrepresentation
concerning polygamy from the beginning.